Viking Runes


Viking Runes

As a point of interest and expanded awareness concerning the ‘Paleo-Hebrew-Script’; there is a valuable connection to be understood concerning the divorced Northern Tribes of Israel … the so-called ‘lost tribes’ of Israel. One thing is certain; they may have been ‘lost’ but they didn’t disappear. They were assimilated into the nations. I have read different research material that exposés physical links connecting many of the English speaking nations (and others) to those ‘lost tribes’.

Anyone can see; if you had a vested interest to hide or deny the identity of the second party of a “Two House” group you would definitely want to hide this.

My wife is Swedish; when she took me to Sweden for the first time we also went to Norway and Denmark (also spelt ‘Danmark’ by the locals). This is interesting for ‘mark’ in Danish can mean ‘land’ so the name actually means ‘Dan-land’. This becomes more interesting realizing that the Hebrew word translated as ‘mark’ is which can mean ‘monument’ and we all know that YHWH’s ‘oath’ to Abraham through Isaac (Gen.15:4) included the land.

We know that ‘Dan’ was a Northern Tribe of Israel. It is also of interest that the word ‘ish’ in Hebrew means ‘man’, so the word ‘Danish’ literally means ‘Dan-man’ just like the composite of the word ‘British’ is actually Hebrew and literally means “ Covenant man . Not to mention that some few of our English words are directly from Hebrew with still being pronounced and meaning pretty much the same.

Along the same lines, another potential enlightenment comes by the word ‘English’. We already know what the word ‘ish’ means; it is not hard to see that the ‘Eng’ of ‘English’ came from the ‘Ang’ of ‘Anglo-Saxon’. What is not popularly considered is that the ‘Saxon’ of ‘Anglo-Saxon’ identifies the ‘Sons of Isaac’ or ‘Saxon’ being ‘Isaac’s Sons’. The potential of this awareness being correct is high, for we know that the sons of Isaac were the sons of the ‘Promise’ (Gen.15:4).

While we were abroad, we went to a Viking Ship Museum in Roskilde Danmark; what I found so un-expectedly corroborating was that the ancient Viking alphabetic script called ‘runes’ (pronounced ‘rue`ins’) looked remarkably like ancient ‘Paleo-Hebrew-Script’; with the “R” being exactly the same and even finding its way to our ‘modern-English-script’ relatively unchanged. Those that would minimize or discount this need to remember, that a clue is a clue precisely because they are unknown and there are not many of them.

It is of interest that ‘mark’ and ‘token’ in the Bible are translated from the same word;

0226. twa ‘owth, oth (oath)
probably from 225 (in the sense of appearing); a signal (literally or figuratively), as a flag, beacon, monument, omen, prodigy, evidence, etc.:–mark, miracle, (en-)sign, token.

Circumcision – of Gen.17:10-11 was to be the ‘sign’ or ‘token’ of the Covenant – Circumcision is definitely going to leave a ‘mark’ meant to ‘evidence’; that is to represent an ‘oath’. Circumcision of the Heart is to ‘evidence’ that same ‘oath’.

Please check out internet websites and compare for yourselves, also word search ‘American British Israelite Heritage’, there’s pro and con on the subject, so weigh the facts. As a personal note; especially after seeing what I personally saw and being able to personally ask questions on site, I find the evidence (including personally researched Scriptural evidence some of which is presented in this book – ‘The Covenants of Promise’) of those ‘for’ more plausible than those ‘against’.

Consider; how would you act?, how would you see yourself?, how would you respond to yourself and others?; how do you think this Nation would be responding if we as a collective actually saw ourselves as being the direct descendants of those that were actually at the foot of Mt. Sinai, receiving the Covenant that contain the Commandments? Even if none of these ‘runes’ considerations were valid; you that would count yourself as a New Creature in the Blood bought Salvation of Messiah ought to (Mat.19:17).

Adapted from My Book – ‘The Covenants of Promise’

Yah’s Esteem


The Original Hebrew?


The Original Hebrew?

I know that in taking and defending a position – Truth is Treason – including this truth.

We have been lead to believe – trained to think of the block script we normally see as the much acclaimed, reverenced and respected ‘Original Hebrew’.

But; consider – Abraham was the first person ever to be called a “Hebrew” (Gen.14:13). The name ‘Hebrew’ comes from ‘eber’ which means to cross over. Abraham would not have known this Babylonian Block Script.

Noah (and family) was the man of both Genesis Earth ages; pre-Flood and post-Flood. Noah had a language. It was the one language spoken by the whole pre-Flood world.

This was the same one language spoken for 2+ centuries by the whole post-Flood world until Gen.11, when Yah ‘confused’ the languages. This original pre-Flood language (from Adam, used and taught by Yah) still remained in use as one of those languages.

Gen.12 identifies Abram/Abraham as having received a promise from YHWH, but he was to leave his father’s country (Gen 11:31) “from Ur of the Chaldees”.

There is a reason why Strong’s Concordance (the hard-copy volume) – has synonymous definitions listed as ‘Hebrew and Chaldee’. Although the implied connection is misleading. Strong’s matches the much later Babylonian/Jewish captivity block script known to only the 2.5 Tribes of the captivate House of Judah. This Babylonian/Jewish block script is erroneously called ‘Hebrew’ as if it were the original and correct ‘Hebrew’ (known as ‘paleo’) spoken and written by the Torah all 12 tribe House of Israel; hence; Moses, hence; ‘The Book of the Covenant’, hence; ‘The 10 Commandments’.

Abram/Abraham came “from Ur of the Chaldees”; ergo he spoke what was known as Chaldee – later to become known as ‘Hebrew’. This dubbed ‘Chaldean-Hebrew’ was likely the language of Noah and his son Shem (Gen.14:8-21/Jasher 16:8-12). For Shem a relative – who out-lived Abraham spoke an in common language.

Shem is called , “the father of all of the sons of Eber” (Gen 10:21); who all spoke and wrote in the same pre-Flood one language. From Shem the Hebrew descendants are called Semites, hence – Abraham.

This pre-Flood one language is one of the class of languages (post Babel Tower) called Semitic, because they were chiefly spoken among the descendants of Shem (Noah’s actual son also had firsthand knowledge of both pre & post flood one language worlds). Shem and the whole world speaking this same one language for centuries after the flood (pre Gen.11).

Consider these quotes – “When Abraham entered Canaan it is obvious that he found the language of its inhabitants closely allied to his own”. (Isaiah 19:18 calls it “the language of Canaan”).

“For the thousand years between Moses and the (House of Judah) Jewish-Babylonian exile the Hebrew language underwent little or no modification”.

“For a limited time thereafter, the use of paleo-Hebrew among Jews (especially the Dead Sea Scroll Essenes ) was retained only to write the Tetragrammaton, but soon (because of Roman annihilation) that custom was also abandoned”. – (parenthetical inclusions mine)

Even this more modern forced Babylonian exile script (Jewish writing) version of Hebrew was lost and had to be resurrected as a spoken language (aprox. the 1880’s foremostly by Mendele Mocher Sfarim).

This group used (chose to resurrect) the Babylonian script rather than Paleo – primarily because they had so many Babylonian script (Jewish writing) documents and almost none of the Paleo-Hebrew.

That is my point – Man / Pastors, Rabbis, Scholars, etc.- choose to revive, reform, resurrect not to the original but to some modern earlier point of assumed lesser error.

At the point of the 6th century Babylonian captivity – that forced alteration cannot be construed as natural language evolution. And that coupled with the pagan and non-scriptural additions – pagan names of days, pagan names of months, altered calender, change of priesthood, introduction of rabbis, etc. is a valid cause for concern and call to reassess – if only to be aware of this change and the impurities it brought.

Vocally there may have been similarities – Although new words and phrases would of had to of been employed (ie written) to accommodate the pagan names of days, months, etc. – Clearly the Heḇrew/Chaldee script is not the Babylonian/Jewish script.

Does the Bible make a distinction? Yes.  – – – For noth’n?  Not a chance!

“the Jews’ language” – 2Kgs.18:26; 28, Nem.13:24, Isa.36:11; 13

Consider this descenting quote – “all languages have endured some sort of metamorphosis through the ages…”

Answer – The forced captivity of the House of Judah and the forced blocked lettering taught by their Babylonian captors can by no means of a stretch of anyone’s imagination be considered a natural ‘metamorphosis’ progression.

Doubtless thru Noah and Shem this language of Adam and Yah – pre-Flood Paleo is what the Ex.12 Torah Israelites (all Israel including Moses not just the Jews) would have known.

This is the Original ‘Hebrew Roots’

We hear of the Greek, Egyptians, Phoenicians, Mesopotamians, Chaldeans and Shiner, etc. and think of them as so very original – so much before of what can be known. Think about it – What is it that can be before Noah’s Flood? Including Shem? Including their one Language? The language of Adam and Yah (Gen.3:8).

Consider this quote – A Midrash on the Migdal Bavel (Tower of Babel) teaches that at the end of time all people will once again speak one language, and that will be a purified form of the Hebrew tongue. There is also d’rash on the verse: “For then I will make the peoples pure of speech, so that they all invoke (YHWH) by name. And serve Him with one accord.” (Zeph 3:9) – that indicates the same thing.

Yah’s Esteem


Equinox or Barley?


Equinox or Barley?

Ex.12:2 This month shall be unto you the beginning of months: it shall be the first month of the year to you.

The Hebrew is translated ‘beginning’ while the Hebrew is translated ‘year’ . This is the true and only Rosh haShana in Torah. Search as you may the Hebrew verbiage is not in Lev.23:24 nor in Lev.25 or in Dt.31.

Rosh haShana is not the point of this article Equinox or Barley is. But we have to use one or the other (Equinox or Barley) to determine when that Rosh haShana ‘Head of the Year’ is approximately 1/3rd of the time. Which is correct?

That Ex.12 Rosh haShana ‘Head of the Year’ is crucial to determining Passover Abib 14, Days of UnlBrd Abib 15-21, Firstfruits, The 7 week and 1 day count (50 days) to Shavuot – even determining when the 7th month fall Feasts are – Yom Teruah (Trumpets), Yom Kippur (Day of Atonement), Sukkot (Tabernacles)

I believe that Abba engineered Firstfruits to be floating from the day after the 7th day Sabbath that falls in the week of the Days of UnlBrd Abib 15-21 as an equalizer for a reason. Some do Passover on the 14th, some on the 15th some follow the Rabbinic calendar, some follow the sighted moon, some claim from Israel, others Texas or Australia or where ever they happen to be. But in the majority of times if the day after the 7th day Sabbath is followed most everyone will whined up on the same page doing the same thing on Shavuot. There are those that claim an Abib 16 that is not in Torah but they hold to it just as if it was an instruction – counting 7 Weds. Or 7 Thurs or ???; instead of 7 Shabbats as it says – “to the day after the 7th Sabbath” which is always a 1st day of the week – not the day after the 7th Tues or ???.

“An equinox occurs twice a year (around 20 March and 22 September), when the tilt of the Earth’s axis is inclined neither away from nor towards the Sun, the center of the Sun being in the same plane as the Earth’s equator. The term equinox can also be used in a broader sense, meaning the date when such a passage happens. The name “equinox” is derived from the Latin aequus (equal) and nox (night), because around the equinox, night and day are about equal length.”

On a personal note; My wife and I walk our dogs most every morning. We have done so for years. This year in particular we noticed that the trees and some flowers were blooming in February. They must not have read the Spring is after Equinox law.

Nehemia Gordon called the New Moon from Israel on the evening of 3-13-13 the same night the RC’s named and installed the 1st ever Jesuit Pope – co-incidence? Passover (Abib 14) was the exact sequence of days this year as the crucifixion – co-incidence? E-ster was on the same day as Fristfruits 3-31-13 – co-incidence? I watched the moon – it was in its peak full phase on Thurs. 3-27/28 (Abib 15) meaning it was entering its full phase on Weds. 3-26/27 (Abib 14) proving Nehemia Gordon right – co-incidence?

The point is we have the Sun and Moon (Gen.1:14-19) roughly 2/3rds of the time spring comes like most would suppose (after the Equinox) with the barley ripening after the Equinox . However the problem is 1/3rd of the time it does not. So we have a dilemma. We have our methods of triangulation; either its the Sun and Moon and Equinox or its the Sun and Moon and Barley

3-13 is only 7 days before 3-20 (+/- Equinox) – When Nehemia Gordon called the New Moon the barley was some 74% ripe expected to be fully ripe by the time of Firstfruits almost 3wks later – it was.

So now the problem is laid bare – Abib means green ears – of what? At that time of year it can only mean barley. And only happens once a year. Has nothing to do with an Equinox that is not mentioned (or alluded to) as instruction in the Torah Scriptural text.

I will speak for myself – I would rather default to what is in Scripture, than to default to what is NOT in Scripture. If we say we keep Torah and follow Moses – lets do that not trying to ‘shoe-horn’ verbiage, issues and things that are clearly not there.

Yah’s Esteem